25 October, 2024 08:14

Without sounding like a total heretic.. sometimes, the Torah exgerrates… or writes things that well…. here is just one of many examples [and by the way the mishna and talmud are full of singular examples ]

At the very end of Moses life, and the transfer of prophecy [not exactly as clear as Moses'] the Torah says about Yehoshua ben Nun that "the torah was always on his lips".

Now that is not possible… on occassion Yehoshua surely spoke words of "divrei chol"…

So why does the Torah do this?

[And again there are more examples, this one was just the most recent one we read] and how can we "know" when the Torah is exaggerating and when it is not????

1st, why? Why not just say, "Yehoshua, he spoke Torah the majority of his life", or….something less over the top than "he always spoke"

…… why "always" when we know that is not possible.

I do not really have a clear explanation… , on my own two cents so to speak, I would say… that I simply do not really know why the Torah speaks in "always" "forever", and other absolutes. Heck, even the "black and white" punishments have pages and pages of Talmud that explain that well, really, we do not take out an eye [an eye for an eye is meant for monetary damages]. So why write it in such a 1/0 way? Opening people up to misuse the Torah for thousands of years and literally take peoples eyes out, literally burn witches, [see Europe UK Ireland for thousands of years] [and places controlled by Islam]…. what about protecting Gods great name??? Anyway.. so the torah has many examples of … exagerration

Maybe it is to purposely catch our attention and get us to actually talk to each other?